Practice important general ability test questions with answers

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UPSC NDA 1 Exam 2022 GAT English Solved Paper: Practice the important questions from the English section of the General Ability Test. The UPSC NDA GAT English section written exam is 200 points out of a total of 600 points.

UPSC NDA 1 Exam 2022 GAT English Solved Paper: UPSC will hold the written exam for National Defense Academy (NDA) and Naval Academy (NA) 1 Recruitment 2022 on 10and April 2022. The written exam consists of two papers, namely the General Aptitude Test (GAT) and Mathematics. The General Aptitude Test consists of 150 questions from two sections which are English (Part A) and General Knowledge (Part B). The English section of Part A of the GAT will consist of 50 questions totaling 200 points. The English quiz will be designed to test the candidate’s understanding of the English language. The program covers various aspects such as grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in an extensive text to test the candidate’s skills in English.

To score high on the UPSC NDA & NA 1 2022 exam, candidates must start practicing the important questions in the General Ability Test section of the exam.

UPSC NDA 1 2022: Part A English – General Aptitude Test (GAT) Important Questions with Answer

(200 points – 50 questions of 4 points each)

Instructions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is the most similar in the sense of the underlined word.

  1. He is a contemplative
  1. Manipulator
  2. Shallow
  3. Negligent
  4. Reflexive

Answer: d)

  1. She loved her father’s lively description of foreign cities.
  1. Picturesque
  2. Insignificant
  3. Weak
  4. Costs

Respond to)

Instructions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that comes closest opposite in the sense of the underlined word.

  1. He accepted the challenge with a eagerness It suprised me.
  1. liveliness
  2. Greed
  3. Lethargy
  4. Liveliness

Answer: c)

4. She is urban in his ways.

  1. Rural
  2. Affable
  3. Wild
  4. Good-natured

Answer: c)

Instructions: In this section, each item consists of six one-passage sentences. The first and sixth sentences are given at the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences of each have been shuffled and labeled P, Q, R, and S. You must find the appropriate sequence of the four sentences and mark your answer accordingly.

  1. S1: The delivery of health care services – from primary care to secondary and tertiary care levels – is the most visible part of any health care system, both to users and to the general public.

S6: This can occur when practitioner and patient communicate by phone, videoconference, internet, email, text message, or any other form of communication other than face-to-face.

P: The place of birth can be at home, in the community, in the workplace or in health facilities.

Q: There are many ways to deliver health care in the modern world.

A: This is what happens in general practice in most countries. However, with modern telecommunications technology, health care in absentia is becoming more and more common.

S: The most common way is through in-person delivery, where the provider and the patient see each other “in the flesh”.

The correct sequence should be:

  1. QSRP
  2. QPR
  3. QPSR
  4. QPRS

Answer: c)

Explanation: The appropriate sequence will be ‘QPSR’

  • There are many ways to deliver health care in the modern world.
  • The place of birth can be the home, the community, the workplace or health facilities.
  • The most common means is face-to-face delivery, where provider and patient see each other “in the flesh”.
  • This is what happens in general medicine in most countries. However, with modern telecommunications technology, health care in absentia is becoming more and more common.

Check How to Clear NDA Defense Exam on First Attempt

Instructions: In each of the following questions, there are three parts (a), (b) and (c), of which one part is incorrect. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

  1. Whatever mission (a)/ the one you take, (b)/ put all your effort into it. (c) No errors (d)

Answer: b)

Explanation: Delete “what” from the sentence.

  1. If the job had been (a)/ properly assigned, it would have taken (b)/ significantly less time to complete. (c) No errors (d)

Respond to)

Explanation: Replace ‘have’ with ‘have’.

Instructions: Read the following short passage. After the passage, you will find several questions based on what is said or implied in the passage. Answer the questions that follow each passage.

On August 7-8, 1942, the All India Congress Committee met in Bombay and ratified the “Quit India” resolution. Gandhi called for “do or die”. The next day, August 9, 1942, Gandhi, members of the Congress Labor Committee, and other Congress leaders were arrested by the British government under India’s defense rules. The Labor Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the four Provincial Congress Committees were declared illegal associations under the Criminal Law Amendment Act 1908. The assembly of public meetings was banned under Rule 56 of the Defense Rules of India. The arrest of Gandhi and Congress leaders led to mass protests across India. Thousands of people have been killed and injured as a result of the “Quit India” movement. Strikes have been called in many places. The British quickly put down many of these protests with mass detentions; more than 100,000 people were imprisoned. The Quit India movement, more than anything, united the people of India against British rule. Although most of the protests were suppressed in 1944, upon his release in 1944 Gandhi continued his resistance and began a 21-day fast. By the end of World War II, Britain’s place in the world had changed dramatically and the demand for independence could no longer be ignored.

  1. Before the Second World War, the British:
  1. Planned to give independence to India
  2. Planned to expand their power in India
  3. I didn’t think of giving freedom to India
  4. Prepared for war using Indian men as soldiers

Answer: c)

Explanation: The British did not think of giving independence to India.

Check the UPSC NDA 2022 Exam Preparation Strategy

  1. What does the word “ratified” mean in the passage?
  1. Confirm by disapproving.
  2. Confirm by expressing consent.
  3. Confirm by expressing disagreement.
  4. Confirm by expressing suspicion.

Answer: b)

Explanation: The word ratified means to give formal consent to (a treaty, contract or agreement), making it officially valid.

  1. In the context of the passage, which of the following statements is true:
  1. Most demonstrations of the Quit India movement were suppressed in 1944.
  2. The Labor Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the four Provincial Congresses were declared illegal associations under Rule 56 of the Defense Rules of India.
  1. only me
  2. II only
  3. I and II
  4. neither me nor me

Respond to)

Explanation: Only declaration I is correct because the declaration of illegality was not covered by rule 56.

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